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In my linguistics course (admittedly only a community college), I was taught that code switching refers primarily to altering idiolects depending on situation and audience. For instance, I speak differently to my mother, my students, my lovers, and the police officer who just pulled me over.
Following links from the artricle, I see this is known as a language register (a new term to me).
Why is this listed in the first line of the article, but never mentioned again? None of the examples in the article are examples of code-switching with registers.
I am a little unclear about something - the first paragraph seems to imply that CS happens with the _same_ people during the course of a conversation (i.e because one or more of them have more than one language/dialect etc in common). A later paragraph refers to altering style of speech according to the different people we are talking to, i.e. a teacher, or a mate in the pub. Clearly the two scenarios are slightly different. Are they both examples of CS? Could someone make this clear please?
I'm not sure if it has any relelvance, but could I mention the piggies from Speaker for the Dead and Xenocide, who learned codeswitching from bilingual Portuguese-English speakers? The book (I forget which one) mentions the piggies speaking mostly in English, but slipping to Portuguese when they were describing something exciting or interesting in their story, similar to how their Portuguese friends spoke. It isn't mentioned in Wikipedia's page (probably 'coz it's got nothing to do with plot). ZanderSchubert 11:20, 12 February 2006 (UTC)
Could we perhaps have a more accessible example? The one we have must have been relevant for the text it was taken from, but surely there must be others involving more widely spoken languages. 68.162.59.226 15:29, 6 May 2006 (UTC)
I agree, that is the worst example you could have possibly given. A french / english or spanish / english example would be best IMO.
This was a broken link, and the government policy didn't flow well without it, so I pulled it out and stuck it here. A.Kurtz 11:19, 10 Feb 2005 (UTC)
Might deserve a mention here.71.131.187.145
So, what about the western Ukraine where people are fluent in both Ukrainian and Russian and most speak a mixture of both languages, often using words from either langauge within the same sentence. Often speakers will consistently use the pronouns and pronounciation of one language while borrowing words from the other. The grammar is very similar between the two languages, but I've heard that only about 30% of the vocabulary is shared. So, does that make this area one of code-switching or a true mixed-language?
As the article stands now, it's only a mess of occurences after occurences, that is in it self of less intrest for the main article. And more infomrative data is shuffled inside the occourences. So I reccomend a total rewrite of this article. →AzaToth 21:48, 17 October 2006 (UTC)
Code switching is often extremely annoying: these people are generally far less clever than they think, if it's done to be funny, which is often or usually the case. Other times I suppose it's just for the sake of convenience (to be fair). http://heritage.chn.ir/en/Article/?id=88 -- this article discusses the pretentious use of Farsi instead of Persian, a good example of lame code switching. It's generally used by Americans (more than Europeans, I think) to affect a knowledge of the source language with they don't have. Is there any way to put criticisms of code switching in?
![]() | This is an archive of past discussions about Code-switching. Do not edit the contents of this page. If you wish to start a new discussion or revive an old one, please do so on the current talk page. |
Archive 1 | Archive 2 | Archive 3 | Archive 4 |